http://bibletranslation.ws/trans/revwgrk.pdf
요한계시록 헬라어-영어 번역 The Revelation of John, Greek & English - Bible Translations
13:16 καὶ ποιεῖ πάντας, τοὺς μικροὺς καὶ τοὺς μεγάλους, καὶ τοὺς πλουσίους καὶ τοὺς πτωχούς, καὶ τοὺς ἐλευθέρους καὶ τοὺς δούλους, ἵνα δῶσιν αὐτοῖς χάραγμα ἐπὶ τῆς χειρὸς αὐτῶν τῆς δεξιᾶς ἢ ἐπὶ τὸ μέτωπον αὐτῶν,
¹⁶And he causes213 all, the small and the great, and the rich and the poor, and the free and the slave, to provide themselves214 a mark215 on their right upper limb216 or on their forehead,
213 13:16a The Greek word is ποιέω - about that." With hina and a subjunctive verb in place of the infinitive. So in this case what people are caused to do would be δίδωμι - dídōmi, in the 3rd person plural subjunctive, "they give." So therefore we have this phrase, "He causes everyone to give to them a mark." Everyone will be giving a mark to whom? To themselves. Yes, that is the primary meaning of the pronoun αὐτός here. Many translations have rendered δίδωμι as "receive." Tyndale did it, though there were a few manuscripts that had the Greek word for receive here. But "receive" is not lexically supported as a possible meaning of δίδωμι. Again, it is fashionable to render 3rd person plural actives as passives; see for example Mark 4:21, ἔρχεται, "exist"; Luke 12:20, ἀπαιτοῦσιν "they are demanding"; Rev. 10:11, λέγουσίν, "they are saying"; Rev. 11:1, λέγων, "as he is saying"; Rev. 12:6, τρέφωσιν, "they might take care;" and other examples. I am saying that I rendered all these actives as actives, and they work fine that way. So there is no reason compelling enough to break the rules of grammar and render the actives as passives. The only reason I can come up with for this trend, is that it is their idea of an “impersonal” verb. Yes, a general “they” is impersonal, but that is still not a reason to make an active verb passive. It is perfectly colloquial and grammatical to say “they call him Jesus,” etc. The only justification for making an active verb passive that I know of in the grammars, is the Aramaic 3rd person plural impersonal; see next footnote. But that is a rare and questionable occurrence, and the burden of proof is on the one asserting that it is happening.
214 13:16b txt {A} δῶσιν αὐτοῖς "they give themselves" א² A C P 046 2080 copsa NA27 {\} ‖ δῶσιν ἑαυτοῖς "they give themselves" 1828 ‖ δώσωσιν αὐτοῖς "they will give themselves" 922 �Κ itgig Tyc½ RP ‖ δῶσιν ἐν αὐτοῖς "they will give onto / in/ by themselves" 1611 ‖ dari “to be given” Irenaeus ‖ δώσῃ αὐτοῖς "he gives them" 051 2329 Hipp TR ‖ δώσει αὐτοῖς "he will give them" 2053 2814 ‖ δῶσιν αὐτ "they give himself" א* 1678 1778 ‖ λάβωσιν "they receive" 1006 1841vid 2040 Vict ‖ δοθῇ "he be given" syrph,h ‖ “they might write/etch” eth ‖ hiat ⁴⁷ ¹¹⁵ 2050 2062. The vast majority of Greek manuscripts, including all but one uncial, have the verb “give” in aorist active indicative 3rd person plural. The only difference between the NA28 text and the Robinson-Pierpont text is that the NA28 text, δῶσιν, is 2nd aorist, and the RP text, δώσωσιν, is aorist. No difference in meaning.
The TR has the verb “give” in 3rd person singular, δώσῃ, and subjunctive aorist. The TR reading reflects an attempt I think to conform the clause to the standard Greek configuration for an “impersonal” verb, where there is no subject as a giver, and the verb is turned passive. Thus, “they might be given.” This is a fact that the Greek grammars say that an “impersonal” verb in Greek grammar is in the 3rd person SINGULAR. I conclude that this is a deliberate change in the Greek text to correct grammar.
The TR reading is a small minority reading, in later manuscripts, and probably not the authorial text. Could it be conforming it to the Latin of Irenaeus and Victorinus? Or is it influenced by the late Syriac?
The majority reading, of the verb as 3rd person plural, and the object being αὐτοῖς, is unusual Greek, and there are really only two options as to how to make it intelligible as it is.
Option 1, the word αὐτοῖς is a contraction of ἑαυτοῖς, and means “they give themselves.” This is the way the scribe of ms. 1828 saw it, which reads δῶσιν ἑαυτοῖς, and this is certainly a real possibility. The ambiguity of αὐτοῖς with αὑτοις (ἑαυτοῖς) is a common textual variant in Revelation that I have seen. Remember, the uncials and papyri did not have breathing marks. So, αὐτοῖς, even with the smooth breathing mark, can easily and rightly be understood as reflexive, and mean “themselves.” So the scribe of ms. 1828 was either correcting grammar, or merely understanding αὐτοῖς as a contraction of ἑαυτοῖς. And it is possible that his exemplar had the long form ἑαυτοῖς.
Option 2, is what M. Black, in An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts, pp. 126-128, would call an Aramaism, and be a “third person plural impersonal” and the meaning be similar to what the Philoxenian and Harklean Syriac read, “they be given” or “they receive.” The TR reading with its 3rd singular verb would not qualify as the Aramaic impersonal remember.
An Aramaism is an unusual and rare occurrence, and I think the burden of proof that it is occurring, is on the one saying it is. That said, I have come to believe that Revelation does show an Aramaic mind in its author. For example, though even ancient Greek the words for foot πούς and hand χείρ originally meant the whole limb, not just the foot and hand, this is most definitely always true in Hebrew and Aramaic. The author of Revelation uses πούς, “foot” to mean the whole limb, where he says the feet of the angel were like “columns” of fire. Legs are like columns, and feet are not.
13:17 καὶ ἵνα μή τις δύνηται ἀγοράσαι ἢ πωλῆσαι εἰ μὴ ὁ ἔχων τὸ χάραγμα, τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ θηρίου ἢ τὸν ἀριθμὸν τοῦ ὀνόματος αὐτοῦ.
¹⁷and217 makes it so that218 no one is able to buy or sell without having the mark the name of the beast or the number of his name.
Therefore similarly, we must conclude that in Revelation 13:16, with χείρ the author means anywhere on the entire upper right limb, not just the hand.
In The Morphology of Koine Greek As Used in the Apocalypse of St. John: A Study, G. Mussies states, “The 3rd person singular is the category which is used when the verb is impersonal,” p. 232. Regarding 3rd person plurals as passives in Revelation, Steven Thomson in his book, The Apocalypse and Semitic Syntax, Cambridge, he says on p. 21 that there are two instances: in 2:24 and 8:2. He says the ὡς λέγουσιν in 2:24 means “what is called” the deep things of Satan. ( I disagree with this. I translate it as follows: ‘ “the deep things of Satan,” as they say.’ In 8:2 the Greek text says ἐδόθησαν αὐτοῖς which is already passive. His example is from a Coptic text! Thomson does not mention this situation in 13:16. But I say, there were many, many opportunities for the proposed Aramaism to show up in Revelation, and it did not; so why must this here be such an example? I say this is not such, and I am saying here that the subject of this verb is the recipients, because autois in Revelation very often means “themselves,” even without the rough breathing mark. At any rate, if the beast “causes all to receive a mark,” the recipients are still getting it for themselves, unless the beast or his agent captures each individual, ties them down, and forces the mark onto them. But if that were the case, would God be able to hold them repsonsible for it? I don’t believe so. So I am saying that you will have to get it for yourself, and then God can hold you repsonsible for doing it.
215 13:16c txt {A} χάραγμα ⁴⁷c א A C P ƒ052 1006 1611 1828 1841 2040 2053 2329 itar,gig vg syrph,h arm Iren Hipp Prim TR NA27 {\} ‖ χαράγματα ⁴⁷* 046 051 922 Κ copsa Beat RP ‖ hiat ¹¹⁵ 2050 2062. This Greek word translated "mark," χάραγμα - káragma, means a poke into the flesh. It also had the meaning of an etching, branding, carving, engraving or stamp. Slaves had a poke in the flesh of their ear to show ownership. So here also, the mark of the beast will show one's voluntary allegiance to the beast and submission to the ownership of the beast. I get the impression from translating this passage that this mark will be self-arranged; that is, people will be told to do it, but nevertheless they ultimately do it voluntarily. They themselves are responsible for making sure they have it, if they want to buy or sell. In other words, it need not be mandatory by law, but life will be extremely hard without it. How could a government give the mark to 20 billion people by force in the remotest jungle? On the other hand, economic incentives have historically worked very well, without the need for something being mandatory by law. Most people serve Mammon anyway, so it will be a no-brainer for most people to get the mark. It will be a blessing on the other hand, for God's people, in that those who are serving Mammon will repent of that, and truly be content with their daily bread from God, and truly live by faith. The exciting life. Exciting to see how God will feed them each day. But we see in this book that many or most of God's people will die or be killed during those days.
216 13:16d The Greek word is χείρ (hand), and meant the entire arm or limb, as so also the word for foot can mean the whole leg; compare Revelation 10:1, where the Greek word is πόδες (feet, sg. πούς), but can and does mean there, the entire leg or limb. This is true also in many of the languages where I was raised – the word for hand or foot can mean the entire extremity. Thus here, this mark could be anywhere from the hand on up.
217 13:17a txt {A} καὶ ⁴⁷ א² Avid P 046 051 ƒ052 922 1006 1828 1841 2040 2053 2329 itgig vg arm eth Hipp½; Prim Beat½ TR RP NA27 {A} ‖ omit א* C 1611 itar vgmss syrph,h copsa,bo Irenlat Hipp½; Prim Beat½ ‖ hiat ¹¹⁵ 2050 2062.
218 13:17b This ἵνα is still connected to the ποιέω of 13:16a. The initial καὶ in this verse is absent from some manuscripts, because, I now quote A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament edited by Bruce Metzger, with text in square brackets supplied by me: "The absence of καὶ [initial "and" in some manuscripts] ...appears to be a secondary modification arising from misunderstanding the relationship between verses 16 and 17. When the ἵνα μή ["so that not"] at the beginning of v. 17] clause was taken to be dependent upon δῶσιν ["they might give"], καὶ was naturally regarded as superfluous, whereas the clause is no doubt to be taken as dependent upon ποιεῖ ["he or it causes" at the beginning of v. 16] and therefore coordinate with the ἵνα δῶσιν ["such that they might give"] clause."
219 13:17c {C} txt:
τὸ χάραγμα, τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ θηρίου ἢ τὸν ἀριθμὸν τοῦ ὀνόματος αὐτοῦ A P 051 1006 1841 2040 (2053 –τ. χάρ.) RP NA27 {\}
το χαραγμα του θηριου η το ονομα αυτου η τον αριθμον του ονοματος αυτου א ƒ052 (copbo)
τὸ χάραγμα ἢ τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ θηρίου ἢ τὸν ἀριθμὸν τοῦ ὀνόματος αὐτοῦ ⁴⁷ TR
το χαραγμα το ονομα του θηριου η τον αριθμον του θηριου 046
το χαραγμα του θηριου η τον αριθμον του ονοματος αυτου 1611
το χαραγμα εχων το ονομα του θηριου επι του μετοπου αυτου 2329
το χαραγμα του ονοματος του θηριου C fu tol lips5 syrph eth Prim Iren Ps-Ambr
το γραμμα του θηριου η του ονοματος αυτου copsa
hiat ¹¹⁵ 2050 2062. The Harklean Syriac talks about the mark "of his tusks"!
- 47
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13:18 Ὧδε ἡ σοφία ἐστίν· ὁ ἔχων νοῦν ψηφισάτω τὸν ἀριθμὸν τοῦ θηρίου, ἀριθμὸς γὰρ ἀνθρώπου ἐστίν· καὶ ὁ ἀριθμὸς αὐτοῦ ἑξακόσιοι ἑξήκοντα ἕξ.
¹⁸Here is wisdom: he who has the understanding should calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a human being; and his220 number221 is222 666.223
220 13:18a Or, "its number"
221 13:18b txt ὁ ἀριθμὸς αὐτοῦ rell. TR RP NA27 {\} ‖ ἀριθμὸς γὰρ αὐτοῦ 1828 ‖ omit ⁴⁷ א 2028 2029 2033 2044 2053comm 2054 2068 2069 2083 2196 syrph copsa ‖ hiat 1384 2030 2050 2062.
222 13:18c txt {C} omit א A 046 922 1828 K Beat TR NA27 {\} ‖ ἐστίν ( ⁴⁷: +δὲ) C P 051 ƒ052 1006 1611 1841 2040 2053 2065 2329 2344 A itgig syrh copbo arm Hipp RP ‖ hiat ¹¹⁵ 2030 2050 2062.
주석 223 13장 18절 의 666 사본 비교
13:18d txt {A} ἑξακόσιοι ἑξήκοντα ἕξ (666) A 1828 copsa RP NA27 {A} ‖ ἑξακόσιαι ἑξήκοντα ἕξ (666) א
‖ χξϛ (with 3 indivudual overlines) (666) 051 82 424 456 627 920 1852 1859 1862 1888 2019 2060 2074 2081 2138 2329
‖ (with one continuous overline) (666) ⁴⁷ 2020 2059 2814 TR
‖ χξσ (with one continuous overline) (666) 046?
‖ χξσ "666" (with circumflex above, plus one continous overline above that) ƒ052 35 94 175 469 1611 1678 2017 2042 2436
‖ χξς (666) 757
‖ χξϛ, (666) Steph 1550 TR
‖ ἑξακόσια ἑξήκοντα ἕξ (666) P 104 241 (792) 922 1006 1841 1854 2040 2053 2065 2073
‖ sexcenti sexaginta sex (666) vg Beatus ps-Ambrose ‖ sexingenti sexaginta sex (666) itgig
‖ ἑξακόσιοι ἑξήκοντα πέντε (665) 2344
‖ (646) itar
‖ ἑξακόσιοι δέκα ἕξ (616) ¹¹⁵ C vgms mssacc. to Irenaeus; Caesarius Tyc2 arm4
‖ hiat 1384 2050 2062 2186. Here is a link to the image of Papyrus 115: http:‖www.bibletranslation.ws/gfx/p115.jpg The "Η" letter is a whole Greek word that can mean "or." There is one theory that it read ἑξακόσιοι δέκα ἕξ ἢ ΧΙC – “666 or 616.”) The "Η" letter can also be the feminine definite article. David Parker writes (in his NTS article): "There is too much space in the papyrus for what one would expect from other witnesses, suggesting that something extra has been written by mistake." He considers the "line written over letter" Eta as a correction sign. (If that is true, I think the most probably explanation is that it was a final N of the word ΕCΤΙΝ, and the scribe of the papyrus mistook it for ΕCΤΙ Η. Some form of the number 666 is supported by itgig vg syrph,h copsa,bo arm eth Irenaeus Hippolytus Andrew; Victorinus-Pettau Gregory-Elvira Primasius Beatus TR RP NA27. The UBS Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament states on p. 49 that Irenaeus "says that 666 is found 'in all good and ancient copies,' and is 'attested by those who had themselves seen John face to face.' …When Greek letters are used as numerals the difference between 666 and 616 is merely a change from ξ to ι (666 = χξς and 616 = χις). Perhaps the change was intentional, seeing that the Greek form Neron Caesar written in Hebrew characters ( נרון קסר ) is equivalent to 666, whereas the Latin form Nero Caesar ( נרו קסר ) is equivalent to 616." In addition, Peter M. Head, in Some Recently Published NT Papyri from Oxyrhynchus: An Overview and Preliminary Assessment, Published in Tyndale Bulletin 51 (2000), pp. 1-16, points out that others have noticed that "two possible transliterations of ‘beast’ into Hebrew could produce either 616 or 666. That is, θηριου (genitive) as in Rev. 13:18 is תריו ; while θηριον (nominative) is תריון . The mathematics is: ן = 50, ו = 6, י = 10, ר = 200, ת = 400. For a full discussion see R. Bauckham, ‘Nero and the Beast’ in The Climax of the Covenant: Studies on the Book of Revelation (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1997), pp. 384-452, also D. Aune, Revelation 6-16 (Waco, Texas: Word, 1998), pp. 722, 769-73." There is a marginal note in MS 1854: “λατεῖνος.” This reflects one of the early gematrial theories, held by, among others, Irenaeus, that 666 stood for the Roman Empire. (This is what λατεῖνος means, the Roman Empire.) Here is the math: λ = 30, α = 1, τ = 300, ε = 5, ι = 10, ν = 50, ο = 70, ς = 200, which add up to 666. Irenaeus favored Τεῖταν (Titus) as the most likely gematrial equivalent for 666, because it had six letters, and he favored λατεῖνος second most. If the final ν is removed from Τεῖταν, you get the number 616. Another, current, theory is that John originally wrote just the 3 letters χξς and that the Arabic writing that Islamic Jihadists wear on their foreheads or the right arms, which looks very much like these 3 Greek letters, will be the mark of the beast, and that the beast will be the Mahdi, or Islam’s
현재 사용되는 헬라어 성경 계시록 13:16-18
13:18 장 헬라버전 666 비교
ἑξακόσιοι ἑξήκοντα ἕξ (육백 육십 육)
χξϛ (666) (알라의 이름으로)
http://blog.naver.com/yoonh20/220559443698
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